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Consider:

  • Since he left the group, we have worked harder to cover his absence.
  • Since he left the group, we work harder to cover his absence.
  • Since he left the group, we worked harder to cover his absence.
  • Since he has left the group, we have worked harder to cover his absence.
  • Since he has left the group, we work harder to cover his absence.

I want to know if tense itself has any influence on the meaning of since between these sentences.

In detail, I want to know how you would use since in such a way that it will not be understood as because. I mean I want it to imply "from the time that ...". I should say that I agree that since as "from the time that ... " and because may indicate exactly the same thing in certain contexts.

Does this have anything to do with the tense we choose? I mean: can the tense itself make the reader biased towards "because" or "from the time that"?

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  • Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
    – user230
    Jul 1, 2017 at 16:15
  • 1
    I hope it's okay, this question has been re-asked in ELU, if you want to go into any more detail. Jul 1, 2017 at 20:24

1 Answer 1

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Ever since he left the group, we have worked harder to cover his absence.

Placing "ever" before "since" clarifies that you are talking about time.

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  • 1
    I notice there is much discussion following the question about the particulars of the grammar. However because this exchange is for helping English learners I believe it makes sense to provide an answer that is easy to understand and that is grammatically correct enough to sound like it came from a college-educated native English speaker. If the question were asking for a deeper answer it would have been posted on the "English Language & Usage" exchange.
    – Readin
    Jul 1, 2017 at 5:30
  • Thanks for the answer, however the main question was whether or not tense itself can make the readers biased towards the specific meaning of since.
    – Cardinal
    Jul 1, 2017 at 7:54
  • @Cardinal: the title of the question reads How to use “since” to imply “from the time that”... and putting ever in front of since is how to do that. Jul 1, 2017 at 16:56
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    @Tᴚoɯɐuo Yes, but the main question was whether or not tense itself can make the readers biased towards the specific meaning of since.
    – user3395
    Jul 1, 2017 at 17:48
  • @userr2684291: We can debate what the main question is, the one in the title or the one mentioned as an apparent afterthought in the body of the question. The point is, tag the question and title the question more clearly. This one was tagged "word usage". Not a good tag and not a good title for a question "mainly" about tenses. P.S. I have appended a comment to the chat to address the question about tenses. Jul 1, 2017 at 17:51

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