Both of them are correct, aren't they?

She has married an architect.

She has married to an architect.


No, "She has married to an architect" is not idiomatic English.

In present-day English married to is employed most often as an adjective:

She is married to an architect.

It will occasionally be found as the passive of transitive marry X to Y, where the Agent of marry is neither X nor Y but some third party.

The Rev. Arbuckle married Susan Jones to William Smith.
The Joneses have married their daughter Susan to Bill Smith.
Susan Jones was married to William Smith last Sunday. Susan got married to Bill last Sunday.

Present perfect has married ... to Y can only be the active voice of this transitive marry; it requires a direct object, and a subject who is neither of the two people who get married.

You can however write:

She has married an architect,

without to—this is a different transitive idiom meaning she became the architect's wife.

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  • great explanation – Anthony Voronkov Jul 2 '17 at 10:32
  • I'm writing to you in order to find the answer to my question. You've been recommended as a specialist in the area my question belongs too. Please, take a lool at the following link: ell.stackexchange.com/questions/136093/… – Anthony Voronkov Jul 13 '17 at 14:01
  • @AnthonyVoronkov Present perfect often alternates with simple past, depending on where you want to put your focus. Check out our tag wiki on Tense and my post on the Perfect; then let me know if you have any further questions. – StoneyB on hiatus Jul 13 '17 at 14:08
  • I'm sorry if I don't understand you correctly, but I think you haven't understand me yet. I've already read you post. I still don't know the answer, though. I want to know why I can't use Past Perfect in the first example and why "war" isn't a reference time. My arguments have been represented in the penultimate comment: ell.stackexchange.com/questions/136093/… – Anthony Voronkov Jul 13 '17 at 14:55

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