I've seen someone quoted this (here) from CGEL:
As with open conditionals, all combinations of protasis and apodosis times are possible.
3) "If I went tomorrow, I would have more time in Paris." [a future remote conditional]
Since it says 'remote', I can assume the use of this past form with 'tomorrow' is to say something can't be fulfilled anymore, which means the 'closed/unreal/ conditional, so I have no problem with this.
Now I've seen a native speaker wrote this:
(......) if I wrote this sentence: "What if I drew (......)" You would interpret it as me (......)
I want to know if it's common to use the past form in your if-clause (grammatically in the form of the so-called 'closed/unreal' conditional) even when you mean to show doing it right after saying it. (I am wondering if it's because s/he was explaining the use of the past form with the if-clause, the writer simply attempted to use the same form even though it's not natural and actually very much causing us learners confused.)
All I want to know is if it's natural and common to you, native speakers.