What is the British pronunciation of vide? ˈvɪdeɪ or ˈvʌɪdi?

Oxford has both the definitions, whereas Cambridge gives only ˈvʌɪdi.

In India, we generally pronounce it as ˈvʌɪd. Is it wrong?

  • 1
    Pronunciation /ˈviːdeɪ/ /ˈvɪdeɪ/ /ˈvʌɪdi/ all of which are acceptable.
    – James K
    Aug 16, 2017 at 20:10

1 Answer 1


The word is Latin, not English, and the pronunciation of fundamentally Latin words has a long and convoluted history, some of which you can read here.

For example, the Romans did not have the separate letters "u", "v" and "w" to represent these unique sounds that exist in English. The words were written exactly as the Romans themselves pronounced them (wee-de), but over the centuries others spoke the Latin as it would have sounded in their own, native languages (vee-de, vay-di, vaid, etc.).

Additionally, there is the influence of Catholic "church Latin", used in common prayer, with its own wide range of variations.

Again, (depending on context) vide is not an English word like the innumerable others borrowed from Latin. It is a Latin word used in Latin phrases such as vide ante or vide supra. The "right" answer depends on whether you want to speak the phrase with its original pronunciation, or with one of the many modern alternatives. Of course if you use "authentic" ancient Roman pronunciation, other scholars might not understand you, because they are used to a modern pronunciation.

So my recommendation is to use what is most common and familiar to your audience, as none of the possible options can be considered definitively "correct".

More information on Latin pronunciation.

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