0

Take the sentence below:

A bike has been in our family for 9 years. My dad used (1) it for the first five, and I have used (2) it for the last four years.

While that was correct, I initially wrote (1) as "has used". I justified it by thinking that the father stopped using the bike 4 years ago. Up until the point where the statement is made, 4 years later, the dad has just used it for five years. The duration hasn't increased since he completely stopped.

Can I interpret it that way?

  • Welcome to the English Language Learners site! This is a great first question, keep it up! If you've got a minute, feel free to take the tour and check out the help centre. – Aric Aug 21 '17 at 8:10
1

Well, I believe it's best to switch the first part of the statement into a past form if you wish to use "has".

That would make it: had used

The present tense for a point in the past "has used" is a bit awkward considering that this event is well into the past.

| improve this answer | |

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.