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I have a question. From Wikipedia's article about Oprah's book club:

"The club has seen several literary controversies, such as Jonathan Franzen's public dissatisfaction with his novel The Corrections having been chosen by Winfrey"

The club is closed for all time. Why "has seen" and not just "saw"? Why "having been chosen" and not just "been chosen" or "chose by"?

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  • Try this link. It explains the usage of Perfect Tenses
    – Varun Nair
    Sep 13, 2017 at 11:22
  • "has seen" instead of just "saw" signifies that the it was an ongoing process and took some time, "having been chosen" is also continuity of the tense. Sep 13, 2017 at 11:26

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  1. Why has seen and not just saw?

    Wikipedia articles are continually revised and updated by many hands working independently. I think it very likely that this passage was written before the Club closed.

  2. Why having been chosen and not just been chosen or chose by?

    The underlying 'canonical' form is a past perfect passive:

    Franzen was dissatisfied that his book had been chosen

    The nominalization of dissatisfied to dissatisfaction requires a complement of the form with X, with X cast in a form which behaves like a noun phrase—in this case, the gerund having been chosen.

    Neither of your rewrites represents this sense or is even grammatically valid.

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  • You'd never know what was intended from the spoken form, but in the written form the source of Franzen's dissatisfaction could be cast in the possessive - dissatisfaction with his novel The Corrections' having been chosen. Sep 13, 2017 at 12:45

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