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The Past Perfect expresses the idea that something occurred before another action in the past.
For examples: 1) He had seen such a beautiful place before he went to India.
2) He had never seen such a beautiful place before he went to India.
In (1) past perfect takes place 1st before past simple. I have a doubt in (2), because of the adverb "never" the action not takes place so which takes place 1st either past perfect or past simple? please could you clarify my doubt?
I know your question is about tense and adverbs, but there is something glaringly wrong with your first example so I'm wondering if perhaps you have just got a bit confused. Let's simplify things a little.
2) He had never seen such a beautiful place before he went to India.
This makes sense. I'm guessing that this is the example you started with. It means that no place "he" had ever seen before he went to India was as beautiful as India.
1) He had seen such a beautiful place before he went to India.
This sentence doesn't scan. It looks like an attempt to reverse the second example but it makes no sense. The expression "such a beautiful place" no longer identifies any place. "Such" is a predeterminer, but it does not determine anything in this context!
The adverb "never" by itself does not have any effect on the tense. It is the verb "had" that determines this. "Never" can also be used in the future perfect tense, for example:
He never will see such a beautiful place as India.
Your example (2) is simply the opposite of example (1).
The never in example (2) means that he the past-perfect action (seeing such a beautiful place) did not occur before the past-simple action (going to India). If may -- or may not -- have happened during or after going to India.
