Always, we use 'have much in common', not 'have many in common'.

However, I can't find the reason why 'have many in common' is wrong. This is because I think 'many' can also be 'pronoun' like 'much' is 'pronoun'. Is this just English usage? I mean there is no exact reason why we do not use 'have many in common'.

Thank you for your cooperation.

  • For your specific example, "We have a lot in common." is so commonly used I wouldn't change it.
    – user3169
    Commented Sep 21, 2017 at 20:01

1 Answer 1


Actually, it can be correct.

Much means a lot, an undefined large quantity. You don't have to specifcy much of _what _ you have, but when you do, you use an uncountable concept:

I don't have much money.
He doesn't like it very much.

Many means a lot of items. Whenever you use many, you have to specifiy many what you mean, and it has to be a countable noun:

I have many apples.
There are many apples, but I don't have many.

In the last example, many means many apples - it was mentioned just before!

So you could say:

There are many different reasons to go on holiday, but we don't have many (reasons) in common.

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