By the time she had finished her work (a)/ I had nearly given up (b)/ all hope of arriving at the party in time.(c)/No error (d).

This sentence is from an error spotting exercise. One error I can see is in part (a), had needs to be omitted, but is the hope used in part (c) correct ? If yes what is the difference between all hope and all hopes ? E.g. I found this sentence :

He has lost all his hopes of getting this money back.

What is the difference in meaning of two different phrases which are used in above mentioned sentences.

  • s/b "By the time she finished her work". There is no reason to use perfect tense there. hope is correct.
    – user3169
    Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 5:54

1 Answer 1


"All hope" and "all hopes" are interchangable; both are correct. I would say there's no error in this sentence.

  • No error? you mean to say even that "had" in part (a) is correct ?
    – user212388
    Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 5:00
  • That is correct. Commented Sep 25, 2017 at 5:01

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