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What's the difference between these two sentences?

  1. All people in the world are equal.

  2. All the people in the world are equal.

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    They're almost saying the same thing. If you wanted to split hairs, you might say #1 is a general (and timeless) statement whereas #2 is a statement about the specific set of people referenced at the time the statement was made. – Lawrence Oct 6 '17 at 13:50
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The difference is small, and almost nonexistent.

The first is a general phrase, while the second uses a definite article (the) to refer to some (as-yet-undefined) people.

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Both the sentences convey the same meaning, but the former (without the) is better and more grammatical than the latter as you are referring to a whole class of people.

Besides, when you say all people, it conveys the sense that you talking about people in general or universally. So it's more appropriate if you say only "all people" without the phrase "in the world".

All people are equal.

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