1

Say a huge rock rolled down from a cliff and killed a passenger by the window of a passing-by bus which I was on. HOWEVER, before the rock hit the bus, I had switched seats with the poor man, the victim.

So I can say :

a.It could be me
b.It could have been me
c.It could not have been him
d.It could have not been him

Which is correct and why, please?

2 Answers 2

1

All of these are grammatically correct. In the situation you describe, talking about an "twist of fate", the most common expression would be:

That could have been me.

In this case the present perfect expresses a potential life experience, narrowly avoided.

However, the negative of this generally means simple lack of ability or potential, and not fate:

Larry could not have been (or simply could not be) the one who robbed that bank yesterday. He's on vacation in Belize.

Instead you would use a conditional:

If he hadn't switched seats with me, it would not have been him (who died that day).

or, alternately:

If we hadn't switched seats it would have been me (who died that day).

9
  • Is the "d" correct? The "not" after the second modal not the first one? Oct 10, 2017 at 17:30
  • @mvlog option c expresses an impossibility, option d expresses the possibility of a negative. it's the same as "it is possible that it was not him. "
    – Hellion
    Oct 10, 2017 at 21:31
  • @Hellion Right, and as your example goes, the "d" should be put as It could have been not him . And look at this Oct 10, 2017 at 22:22
  • @MvLog the ngram is erroneous. Hellion's comment is that it's possible to say "It could have not been him" as a response to a previous comment about what the various possibilities are. The two sentences ("It could not have been him", "It could have not been him") imply different things.
    – Andrew
    Oct 10, 2017 at 22:26
  • @Andrew I don't ask about "c" and "d". I do ask about "d". What's the difference between It could have been not him and It could have not been him? Oct 10, 2017 at 22:43
0

Under all of those possibilities, in correct, "formal" English (English almost never spoken, but grammatically correct), it should read:

"It could have been I."

It would also be "I" instead of "me" for every one of your examples and, in the answer above, it should read:

"It could have been he (not him) who died that day."

This is an example of the "predicate nominative" in English. Most English speakers say things such as "It's me" or "It's him or us", but correct English (formal English used especially in writing) would say "It is I" or "It is he or we". For instance:

"It is I who am to blame."

"It is we who have to live on this planet so it is we who must protect it."

"It is they who are the reason that we have failed."

"It is she whom you want."

Again, this is very formal English; therefore, I am teaching you the English that you would use when you are writing a formal essay, paper, dissertation, treatise, etc. in English. This would almost never be heard in Modern English conversation, however, wherein the "disjunctive pronoun", which is in the oblique case, is always used in colloquial speech. Sigh, it is not I who write the rules. (Notice the subject-verb agreement between "I" and "write".)

1
  • Thanks for the interesting answer, though it is a little beside my question.
    – Lewis Lu
    Oct 19, 2017 at 9:49

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .