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I tried looking up the difference between has and have and it generally has to do with plurals, but that doesn't seem to be changing in this case. Why do you use have in one case and has in another?

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marked as duplicate by ColleenV♦ Oct 17 '17 at 16:23

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migrated from english.stackexchange.com Oct 17 '17 at 15:27

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  • What about: "he does have it"? Do you see what's happening without the inversion? Same with "he will have it". – Laurel Oct 13 '17 at 22:11
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    Auxiliaries do not take a tensed verb-form. This 'have' is the bare infinitive, not the present simple; bare infinitives are used with do-support. – Edwin Ashworth Oct 13 '17 at 23:54
  • @EdwinAshworth That is an answer. – Phil Sweet Oct 14 '17 at 0:37
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    @Phil Sweet It is doubtless a duplicate answer to a duplicate question. Perhaps you'd like to do a bit of detective work? I close-voted on grounds of lack of research / inappropriateness for ELU, so giving an 'answer' would be sending mixed messages. – Edwin Ashworth Oct 14 '17 at 0:54