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I have heard usage of "been" other that in perfect continuous tense.

like when we are talking about past, could we say that "I been given some work"?

is the above sentence correct? if not why?

but, this sentence convince me, because it is the situation in which i am talking about past and some thing happened on me, so in order to say that i need to use forms of "be", but i cannot say in perfect form because "have " and "had" is not form of "be", but if i use "have been" or "had been" then it will be in perfect continuous, again i don't want to add continuous sense to it, it should be in perfect with 3rd form of verb.

am i correct?

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  • I don’t really understand the paragraph you’ve added to the question. Can you provide the broader context of the sentence, since you seem to think that in the broader context you shouldn’t use a form of “have” – Stella Biderman Nov 27 '17 at 14:45
  • @oerkelens are you saying that "i have been given some work" is correct? – Rahul Nov 27 '17 at 14:51
  • and about learning English, i have read all the grammar book in my house. because i heard it in anime, i asked this question.the problem with us, whose English is 2nd language is that we have to keep in track what is wrong and what is correct no matter ho correct it seems we have to check it before. anyway thanks bros.) – Rahul Nov 27 '17 at 14:55
  • As long as you actually capitalise the I, yes, that sentence is absolutely fine, if you use it in the right situation. But that is true for any sentence. – oerkelens Nov 27 '17 at 14:55
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That usage is not correct. There is no tense where you can just use “been” by itself, it always follows a form of the verb “to have”.

In the US, “I been given” can be used as slang, but that use is stereotypical of poorly educated people and widely avoided.

  • but, i have heard it while watching anime, and it feels right, it is the situation when some one is telling about the past and dont want to add continuous sense to it, because whole story is already in perfect continuous. – Rahul Nov 27 '17 at 14:24
  • considering i am saying in indirect speech? – Rahul Nov 27 '17 at 14:29
  • @Rahul I’ve edited my answer to include the only usage along these lines I’m aware of. I don’t think that the construction you’re discussing is correct. – Stella Biderman Nov 27 '17 at 14:34
  • please read my edited question and respond. – Rahul Nov 27 '17 at 14:37
  • man, i have never seen down vote in question for learning language! – Rahul Nov 27 '17 at 14:43
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"I have been given some work" can be contracted to "I've been given some work."

The 've part of contractions can often be very quiet when spoken quickly or not enunciated perfectly, and in certain varieties and dynamics of English slang, it can be omitted entirely, particularly if been is emphasized loudly.

It's always supposed to be there, though. "I been gone" and "I have been gone" don't mean different things, for example, so there is no additional use or tense available with been.

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