Out of these two sentences, which one is correct, and why?

He made me do it.

He made me to do it.

I was thinking to do is correct, but an example I read says do is correct.


In current English "make" (in the sense of "force" or "compel" is followed by a simple infinitive, without "do". So "He made me do it" is grammatical, and "He made me to do it" is not.

There is no systematic reason for this: it is simply a property of the word "make" (in this sense) that requires it. If you substitute near-synonyms "force" or "compel", they do require "to". ("He forced me to do it").

What kind of object or complement particular verbs take is an unpredictable property of the verb, that you simply have to learn with the verb, unfortunately.

In Early Modern English, "make" could take a "to" infinitive so for example in the King James Bible (1611) there are many instances like "God hath made me to laugh". But if you use this construction today, it will look like either an error or a deliberate archaism.

  • 2
    I agree for the most part, though "He made me to do it" isn't an archaism, because it is still the clearest way to say "he created me for the purpose of doing it." You would just simply not hear it used often because the meaning is somewhat odd and context-specific. OP almost certainly means to use the former case for that reason.
    – Neil
    Dec 4 '17 at 10:54
  • @Neil Still, somebody could use "he made me" to mean "he created me." Maybe it's not that common, but it's a plausible sentence.
    – apaderno
    Dec 4 '17 at 11:03
  • +1 Thank you for quote from KJV. Yes I had seen that phrase there.
    – Jamess
    Dec 4 '17 at 11:24

According to the Collins dictionary:

  1. to cause, compel, or induce; Please make him go away

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