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Am I correct in thinking that having + past participle conveys the flowing meaning?

Pharse:

Tomorrow, having finished the game, I will go home.

Means:

Tomorrow, after finishing the game, I will go home.

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    Yes that's correct but but you can't use i. It's always used in capital as a pronoun
    – Ziya bano
    Dec 11, 2017 at 19:42
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    @Ziyabano: Sorry to interrupt, but can we interpret 'Tomorrow, having finished the game, I will go home' as 'Tomorrow, since I have finished the game, I will go home.'?
    – whitecap
    Dec 15, 2017 at 19:00
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    Yeah. I think your two sentences are equivalent in meaning. You could also say, "Tomorrow, after having finished the game, I will go home." That also means the same thing.
    – mlecoz
    Dec 24, 2017 at 4:30

2 Answers 2

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The former is a little confusing. A proficient English speaker will still understand you, but the exact cause-and-effect relationships are unclear.

The having + past participle construction is properly used in the past tense:

Yesterday, having finished the game, I went home.

This means that some time yesterday, I finished the game, and then I went home. The sentence would still make sense without the "yesterday"; it just adds some detail.

By saying Tomorrow, having finished the game, you're applying a purely past construction to the future tense. There are constructs for this scenario, and your second sentence is one of them, but "Tomorrow, having finished" is not.


Regarding your second sentence, Tomorrow, after I finish the game, I will go home would be a little better. It confuses readers/listeners for a moment to read/hear what the subject (I) is doing before learning who/what the subject is.

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The sentences do mean the same thing. (I'd expect to hear "After I finish the game tomorrow, I'll go home," but all 3 sentences mean the same thing.)

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