In Russian, in most cases we have endings for creating desirable construction. My assumption is that English has auxiliary words in most cases. And we use those words like our attitude to next action, as in:

I (do|can|did|will|may) drink

In the example, we have an action (drink), and an auxiliary verb: I do drink (I do this everyday), I will drink (I want to drink, but not now), I will have drunk (I want to be drunk at the evening).

If I say that auxiliary verbs show you treatment of next action, then can I say something like this?

I didn't will have drunk 10 glass of beer everyday.

Is that sentence grammatically correct? I know that nobody says so, but can I say so, like I didn't use to be messed up after 10 glasses of beer everyday or something similar?

  • 2
    I get the gist of what you're asking, but "I didn't will have drunk 10 glass of beer everyday" would be nonsense to a native speaker (like me). Word salad. You'd want to say "I don't get drunk even after drinking 10 glasses of beer" or "I can drink 10 beers every day and never get drunk". Also, dude, if that's true, you're an inspiration to me ;) . Also, in case you're interested, the difference between Russian using word endings and English using auxiliary verbs is known as the "synthetic" (composition via morphology) vs "analytic" (composition via syntax) in linguistics.
    – Dan Bron
    Commented Dec 26, 2017 at 15:21
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    The question is confusing. Russian has case endings, there are six declensions. Latin and Greek also have declensions as do many others. English does not. English auxiliary verbs are not related to that at all. For me, the question mixes apples and oranges. You would have to compare Russian verbs to English verbs. Also, you need to take a look at auxiliaries and their construction so you can ask a grammatical question. "I didn't will have drunk" for example, doesn't work: you are mixing tenses there. "didn't drink" versus "will not [won]t] have drunk"
    – Lambie
    Commented Dec 26, 2017 at 15:39
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    So, either you compare the verbs of the two languages, or you compare noun phrases and other parts of the sentence, but not verbs in one language with declensions in another.
    – Lambie
    Commented Dec 26, 2017 at 15:42
  • Wow! Thanks guys for your answers. I expected that you don't understand my claptrap)). Lambie, for example, you answer next: ".... Latin and Greek also have declensions as do many others...". - smth HAVE but other DO. I understand you completely. But I want to emphasize, that in English lang you use DO as attitude or treat for HAVE. Like: I have a cat like John do. In Russian we say like: I have cat like John have too. For me it is a little bit strange, but I am going to understand English grammar completely.
    – Aleksi
    Commented Dec 26, 2017 at 15:55
  • @Aleksi: A native English speaker, unless they are a mindreader, would have no clear idea what you were attempting to say with "I didn't will have drunk 10 glass of beer everyday." or "I didn't use to be messed up after 10 glasses of beer everyday" since the word everyday, together with your tenses, makes no sense. My guess is that you want to say "I won't have been drinking 10 glasses of beer each day" (e.g. at some time in the future, after I've decided to get fit) and "I didn't used to get drunk by drinking only 10 glasses of beer in a day" (but nowadays 10 glasses is making you drunk)
    – TimR
    Commented Dec 26, 2017 at 16:02

2 Answers 2


I do not know Russian, but have studied heavily inflected languages like Latin. English is descended from a heavily inflected language, but now relies only lightly on inflection.

With respect to verbs, there are meaningful inflections. "I play the piano" means that playing the piano is habitual action in the present, but "I played the piano " means that the playing was in the past.

The exact meaning of a verb can also be changed by using a properly inflected "modal" verb in conjunction with the uninflected form of the relevant verb. "I shall play the piano" indicates that the playing is in the future. "I may play the piano" indicates either that the activity is permitted or that the activity is not certain to occur.

Furthermore, the exact meaning of a verb can also be changed by using a properly inflected auxiliary verb ("be" or "have") in conjunction with specific inflections of the relevant verb called participles. "I am playing the piano" means that the playing is simultaneous with the statement.

Finally, a verb can be modified by being used with both a modal and an auxiliary verb. But not all combinations of modal and auxiliary are meaningful.

English verbs are a very complicated subject. I doubt any simple statement (except the preceding) can be anything but misleading.

  • I liked this description, thank you for the knowledge Jeff
    – Zorkind
    Commented Dec 26, 2017 at 17:46

"I will have drunk" does not mean "I want to be drunk at the evening". What it means is: at a future time (will) I will be in a state-of-completeness of drinking (have drunk).

For example, a reasonable statement is "by the end of this party, I will have drunk too much to drive safely". This means that you think about that future time, and at that time your drinking will be complete.

The negative form is "will not have drunk" or "won't have drunk" (both can be inserted in the sentence above).

If you think that at a future time you will be in the middle of drinking but not be done drinking, you should use "I will have been drinking" instead.

If you are talking about a habit, it is not a state of completeness, so you should not be using perfect. Present simple or future simple should be used instead: "I drink (or: will drink) 10 glasses of beer everyday".

P.s. these rules should not be expected to be followed by people who have drunk 10 glasses of beer.

  • ha ha ha. Good response, funny.
    – Lambie
    Commented Dec 26, 2017 at 17:02

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