"The irrealis mood form is unique to be, and limited to the 1st and 3rd person singular”

Rodney Huddleston and Geoffrey K. Pullum, A Student's Introduction to English Grammar. Cambridge University Press, 2005

What did he mean by this?

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    "You was" is not standard English in any context. It does occur in some non-standard Englishes. Whether speakers of those non-standard varieties use the distinct irrealis form (whether for 2nd or any other person) is anybody's guess. I assume that H&P mean that the special irrealis form were is only available in 1st and 3rd person singular, because in the plural and 2nd person the verb is indistinguishable from the normal past. – Colin Fine Jan 8 '18 at 0:45

As I've argued in many posts, the irrealis mood is hokum perpetrated by modern grammarians to eviscerate what is really the subjunctive mood in English. Calling the subjunctive mood the irrealis mood is equivalent to my calling the trash around my house "flowers" and then asking people, "How do you like my flowers?" I can call my trash "flowers" all I may want, but the fact remains that my "flowers" are really "trash". Here are two answers of mine about the "subjunctive mood" (what some grammarians call "irrealis"):

What kind of conditional form is this sentence?.

Could 'it' be regarded as plural? Why is 'were' used instead of 'is' in "...if it were cleaned and fed..."?.

Here's a sample of a comparison of the indicative and subjunctive from Old English (circa A.D. 900):

past subjunctive of "to be" in Old English: ic ƿǣre (I were); past indicative: ic ƿæs (I was). present indicative: ic eom (I am); present subjunctive: ic bēo (I be). This runic letter ƿ is wynn; it makes a w sound. Present indicative of "will": ic ƿille (I will); past subjunctive: ic ƿolde (I would); present indicative of "shall": ic sceal (I shall); past subjunctive: ic sceolde (I should).

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