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Strong as he was he could beat his opponent.

I saw the above sentence on a website which explains the usage of inversion. It gives the previous example. Is this equal to:

Though he was strong he could not beat his opponent.

  • Did you accidentally leave out the word not in the first example? – snailboat Jan 31 '18 at 20:16
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No, the the two sentences you list are not equivalent. The meaning of the first sentence is actually "because he was very strong, he was able to defeat his opponent".

I looked up the source of the quote, and I suspect that the author of the article made a typo in that sentence because the rest of their examples make sense but this one does not.

The proper equivalent to the second sentence would be:

Strong as he was, he could not beat his opponent.

This has the negation, which the example sentence they give does not.

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