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We usually use the past participle to indicate passive.

Why the rule doesn’t apply to “control”

The Source

  • This suggests that mind control by the media should be particularly effective when the media users do not realize...

Why isn’t it like: ........mind controlled by the media....

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  • Because the meaning will be completely different, and in this case it doesn't make sense.
    – Cardinal
    Jan 31 '18 at 21:17
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"Mind control" (also called "brainwashing") is a compound noun, like "bed frame" or "swimming pool". It is the subject of the phrase, and not "mind" by itself -- the sentence says that this technique, practiced by the media, is effective under certain conditions.

(Note: "mind control" also refers to the direct control of some person by some external entity (like someone with special mental powers) and is a popular subject in fiction.)

If you wanted to use the passive verb, with "mind" as the subject, you could say:

The study shows that the minds controlled by the media (are more likely to buy on impulse and prefer products they've seen advertised.)

It would be unusual to refer to people as "minds" but not out-of-place with the right context.

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  • Well explained, I didn’t know that control is a noun here. And makes with “mind” a compound noun. Jan 31 '18 at 21:27

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