-1

"A fine of $100 will be imposed upon any drivers of whom the car is illegally parked."

Is there anything wrong, in terms of grammar, with the above sentence?

1) Should driver(s) be singular or plural?

2) Should car(s) be singular or plural?

3) Should it be 'of whom' or 'whose'?

3
  • Why aren't you saying “We will fine the owners of illegally parked cars $100” instead? It's much more direct and obvious, and much less clumsily constructed.
    – tchrist
    Mar 7, 2018 at 20:00
  • Umm because the sentence in question appeared in a TOEIC test? And if the sentence is indeed grammatically wrong, I'm looking for ways to fix it without changing the overall structure.
    – Joe
    Mar 7, 2018 at 20:07
  • I believe the word "drivers" should be singular but it would be better if the "of whom the" was replaced by "whose" also. Mar 7, 2018 at 20:53

1 Answer 1

3

The sentence is at best clumsy. On close reading it doesn't appear to make sense. It's not clear what the pronoun "whom" is referring too. The context makes the intended meaning clear and there are lots of straightforward ways to express it:

A $100 fine will be imposed on the drivers of illegally parked cars.

Drivers of illegally parked vehicles are subject to a $100 fine.

In these examples I used plural drivers and plural cars (as we are referring to possibly multiple cars and drivers). I avoided "of whom" entirely. I can shorten this further to a noun phrase suitable for going on a sign:

Fine for illegal parking — $100

1
  • And of course, parked cars, by definition, are not being driven, hence have no drivers. :) Mar 7, 2018 at 21:49

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .