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I want to express something like demand for something has risen using there be clause.

Is it OK to say there has raised demand for something?

  • Where is the form of the verb BE in your sentence? – Tᴚoɯɐuo Mar 14 '18 at 11:28
  • You can say "X has raised demand for Y" but "There has raised" doesn't make any sense. Maybe you're thinking of something like "There has been increased demand for Y"? – stangdon Mar 14 '18 at 15:25
  • "There has been a rising demand for ..." using to rise instead of to raise. – user3169 Mar 14 '18 at 22:17
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No, because the phrase does not contain a verb indicating existence (like 'to be' or 'to exist') it cannot be a existential ('there be') clause.

The current verb is a form of 'have': indicating possession by something and not existence

The verb form is correct, but not the root verb itself. Swap the 'has' for the correct form of 'be' (third person singular in this case) and you have a valid existential clause.

There is raised demand for something.

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