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Can you please help me better explain the structure below to my student?

"Does beauty has standards?"

Isn't the rule that the second verb (have) goes in the infinitive form in questions with do/does?

She understands the agreement in the structure "Beauty has standards" and is trying to apply it in the question form.

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Isn't the rule that the second verb (have) goes in the infinitive form in questions with do/does?

Yes. In Do/does/did X - for questions/emphasis/negation - X must be the infinitive form.

One exception: if X is be then do isn't used normally (the correct form of be is used "directly"):

Does beauty have standards (right)

Does beauty be important? (wrong - but slight chance you hear this in real speech)

Is beauty important? (Do beauty important is very wrong)

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    In English, only one verbal (the first one) per clause carries tense and agreement. – amI Mar 29 '18 at 21:23
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"Does beauty have standards?" is the correct usage. The second verb ("have") is in the simple tense (infinitive without the "to"). This equates to "Beauty does have standards," or its equivalent, "Beauty has standards," in statement form.

"Does beauty has standards" is incorrect.

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