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Please check the below sentences and let me know, is this correct or not. As per me had been (the past perfect tense) should not be used with since.

As per my friend:

I had been writing since childhood.

As per me, it should be:

I have been writing since childhood.

Thanks in advance.

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    Incidentally, in AmE (and as far as I know in BrE), as per is only used in commercial and bureaucratic registers. In ordinary speech and academic writing we say according to.
    – StoneyB on hiatus
    Jan 22, 2014 at 19:15

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Perfect constructions speak about a state which obtains at Reference Time—the time which your discourse addresses—as a result of some prior event. Present perfect and past perfect address different Reference Times.

Present perfect speaks about a present Reference Time:

I am about to start my first novel, but I have been writing since childhood. ... This speaks about my present writing experience.

Past perfect speaks about a past Reference Time:

In 2003 I started my first novel, but I had been writing since childhood. ... This speaks about my writing experience in 2003.

You may read more (much more, possibly, than you want) about the meaning and use of perfect constructions here.

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If you have been taking pen to paper since childhood-- but no longer write (or if your current status as a writer is undetermined) say: "I had been writing since childhood." [You did write in the past.]

If you used to do this-- and still do-- say: "I have been writing since childhood." [You did write in the past and do so now.]

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