I have some questions about these statements:

Don't let him to mislead you

Don't let him mislead you

  1. Are both of the sentences correct?
  2. If both are interchangeable, which one sounds more natural to a native speaker?
  3. Is there a rule or structure that governs the second example - as that sentence does not have the full infinitive?

Other examples could be:

"Don't let the devil deceive you."



The first statement is incorrect. The second statement Is perfect!

“let him to” is never used in UK English or any other English I know.


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