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The prince and even his brother,the Earl of Kent,who was against him, sympathize with him.

I want to convey that the Earl of Kent was against the king, not the prince, but they both sympathize with the king. Does the sentence somehow means that both were against the king? I want to make sure that it is clear that only the Earl of Kent used to be against the king not the prince. Please correct it if it's wrong.

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  • Could you please specify where the king is represented in the sentence? Apr 18, 2018 at 19:58
  • The pronoun "his" is used for the king. Also, the two "him" are for the king. Could you please suggest a more clearer way to convey all this.
    – Shivam
    Apr 18, 2018 at 20:00

1 Answer 1

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Yes, with previous context that shows that the "his" and "him" represent the king, this sentence makes sense and shows what you wanted.

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  • I disagree. No matter what context is provided by earlier text, OP's example is inherently flawed, because syntactically there's no way of establishing the referent of him (or indeed, whether the two instances of him refer to the same or different people). Come to that, there's no way to be certain who his refers to. Apr 19, 2018 at 13:07

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