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When our own interests are threatened by the inconsiderate behavior of others, most of us find it easy to appreciate that those others have a reason to be more considerate. When you are hurt, you probably feel that other people should care about it: you don't think it's no concern of theirs, and that they have no reason to avoid hurting you. That is the feeling that the "How would you like it?" argument is supposed to arouse.

[What does it all mean, Thomas Nagel]

Do these two sentences have the same meaning?

  • That is the feeling that the "How would you like it?" argument is supposed to arouse.

and

  • That is the feeling that is supposed to arouse the "How would you take it?" argument.

closed as off-topic by FumbleFingers, Kinzle B, Lucian Sava, laugh, Varun Nair May 7 '18 at 7:07

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  • Short answer: No. Longer answer: look up "arouse" in a dictionary (such as here). Why do you think they have the same meaning? Also, I don't see how the quoted text is relevant to the question. – laugh May 4 '18 at 20:07
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No, the two sentences have exactly opposite meanings. The key is to look at this part, which contains a noun and the verb that it's performing:

...the ___ argument is supposed to arouse...

vs.

...the feeling...is supposed to arouse...

In both sentences, something is arousing (or supposed to arouse) something else. In the first version, the argument is causing the feeling. In the second version, the feeling is causing the argument.

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