From a research paper:
How can such a diverse group of pathogens confer similar risks of psychotic disorder? Common to the implicated pathogens is the maternal immune response. In support of this possibility, enduring fevers above a certain threshold pose the greatest risk (10).
Do the authors mean "fevers that are enduring" (fevers that last long) and which produce a body temperature above a certain threshold"?
Or do they mean "for a future mother, being in a state of fever (enduring a fever) for a period of time that exceeds a certain threshold is to put herself at the greatest risk" of maternal immune response?