Let's say you have never seen a woman who have become prettier compared to her previous look before she got pregnant. And you say:

This is the first time I've seen a woman who have become so hot after she gets pregnant.(possibly a run-on sentence)

Is my sentence construction grammatical without any unclear thought when read.

Disclamer: The register is informal. The sentence constructed is only for the query.

  • 1
    one woman=has, singular verb.
    – Lambie
    May 11, 2018 at 14:46
  • 3
    John Arvin, you know we routinely close questions that ask for simple correction. Could you add more detail to this one so it's clear why you wrote it this way and why you think it might (or might not) be correct?
    – Andrew
    May 11, 2018 at 14:48
  • 2
    Imho the cited text would be extremely unlikely coming from a native speaker, even after correcting who have to who has, since those two words are completely unnecessary to the sense intended. Just say This is the first time I've seen a woman become so hot after she gets pregnant. May 11, 2018 at 15:44
  • 1
    For a structurally similar example illustrating the same "unnecessarily complex tense" usage, compare I've never seen anyone who has asked so many questions before (no matches in Google Books) with I've never seen anyone ask so many questions before (29 hits). The first version is "grammatically valid", but in practice people usually avoid such pointlessly convoluted verb forms where they add nothing to the meaning. May 11, 2018 at 15:52
  • 2
    I would never say something like that to any woman. It's creepy. May 11, 2018 at 16:13

2 Answers 2


That is not correct. The way you have bolded things, it appears that you think "have become" must agree with the main sentence's subject, "I"; but really it must agree with the subject of that particular phrase, which is "a woman". So it requires the third-person singular "has become".


Close. It should be "a woman who HAS become". "Woman" is singular, so it calls for a singular verb. "Has" is singular, "have" is plural.

An example with the plural would be, "I've seen many women who have become hotter after they got pregnant."

  • 2
    More precisely, has is third person singular present, and have is otherwise used for the present tense. Have is not specifically plural; we say I have, for example.
    – user230
    May 11, 2018 at 16:08
  • Yes, good point. "has" is third person singular. First person singular and plural, second person singular and plulral, and third person plural all use "have".
    – Jay
    May 11, 2018 at 17:18

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .