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a1. This theory is yet to be proven.

a2. This theory is not yet to be proven.

I feel both a1 and a2 denote the same meaning that this theory hasn't been proven yet and probably will be proven, which seems to me that NOT doesn't take any effect. I am not sure if my suspicion is correct. Or if there is some difference between a1 and a2?

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  • @MrLister, What I am curious is that if both mean the same, then the negative NOT seems meaningless here? Or they mean similar but with some nuance?
    – dan
    Commented May 31, 2018 at 9:14
  • Apparently I'm not explaining it clearly enough, sorry. I was trying to say that if you insert "not", the meaning does change. You should edit the question with the reason you think the word is meaningless; only then will it become answerable. Otherwise it's primarily opinion-based.
    – Mr Lister
    Commented May 31, 2018 at 9:16
  • The body of the question has has and not 'is'. You may correct it or else it'll be a whole new thing to discuss! :)
    – Maulik V
    Commented May 31, 2018 at 9:32

1 Answer 1

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is there some difference between a1 and a2?

Yes.

Let's review each example:

a1. This theory is yet to be proven.

OK

a2. This theory is not yet to be proven.

The "not" isn't correct in here. It's a grammatical mistake. However, the sentence sounds similar to another one which would be acceptable.

a3. This theory has not yet been proven.

OK

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