We know "am/is/are/was/were" are "to be" verb but some people say those verb are "be verb".which is correct? I think "to be" sounds like infinitive.Am I wrong?

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    The verb is just "be". The word "to" is not part of the verb, but a separate subordinator used to mark infinitival clauses. – BillJ Jun 3 '18 at 14:06
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    "to be" is an infinitive. That's the "base" form for any verb - obviously dictionaries don't list them all as to [verb], but you'd look this one up under be, not am/is/are/was/were. – FumbleFingers Reinstate Monica Jun 3 '18 at 14:49
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    No, FF. English doesn't have an infinitive form of the verb in the way that, say, French does. To be is not a verb; it is two words, the subordinator to and the verb be. – BillJ Jun 3 '18 at 15:22

Infinitives in English are sometimes described as 'to infinitives' (eg "I like to run in the park.") and 'infinitives without to' (eg "The teacher made us run in the park."). These are sometimes called 'full infinitives' and 'base infinitives' respectively.

As you can see from the comments to your question, some people regard the stem "to" as not being part of the infinitive, whereas others regard it as being an integral part of the infinitive. I am not qualified to enter into that discussion. However, this is the reason that some people say that the verb is "to be" and others say that the verb is "be." So, "No", you are not wrong, you are simply inexplicably involved in a grammatical debate that has not yet been fully resolved.

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