I have the following sentences,

  1. She did not get her hand kissed by the gentlemen, since ... (correct imo)
  2. She did not get her hand kiss by the gentlemen, since ... (incorrect imo)

Now, I want to know which one is the correct one, I think its the first one, but I don't know the formal grammar rule, as in many cases with languages which are not native to me, the first one just "feels" right. If its correct, could you tell me why after using "did not" (already indicating past tense) "kissed" should be used ? Does the effect of "did't" cancel out with the verb get (not got). Thanks.

migrated from english.stackexchange.com Jun 22 '18 at 0:53

This question came from our site for linguists, etymologists, and serious English language enthusiasts.

  • Kissed is the past participle of the verb kiss, because it's being used as an adverb to modify get. – Bread Jun 17 '18 at 15:21
  • The "did" takes the past tense off the "get". She got X → She did not get X. What she didn't get, what the X is, is completely beyond the point. It could be just one word, like "satisfaction", or several words, like "a nice present", or an entire phrase, like "her hand kissed by the distinguished gentlemen standing around like a bunch of oxen looking at the bluish-gray curtains and contemplating about what Nietzische could have possibly meant when he said 'I like turtles'". The did belongs to the get and to nothing else. Not to Nietzsche, not to curtains, not to the kiss. – ЯegDwight Jun 17 '18 at 15:23
  • But kissed is correct and kiss is not, in the given sentence. I suppose kissed is really the past participle acting as an adjective modifying "hand" there, rather than an adverb as I stated incorrectly before. – Bread Jun 17 '18 at 17:15

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy