I know that in the following sentence:
I throw John the ball.
"the ball" is a direct object, and "John" is an indirect object.
For the following sentence:
I throw the ball to John.
Is "John" still considered to be an indirect object? or, instead, do we say that "to John" is a complement, but that the word "John" is no longer an indirect object?
Background (for the purpose of aiding in linguistic comparison):
I am a native speaker of English who is learning French. It appears that in French, an indirect object always starts with a preposition (and a direct object never does). For example, both "I throw the ball to John" and "I throw John the ball" would be translated as:
Je lance la balle à John
and we would say that "à John" is an indirect object. ("à" is a preposition in French, meaning "to" in this case)
I want to know, when talking about English grammar, if I can also say that "to John" is an indirect object, in the sentence "I throw the ball to John".