I was told that "it is no use" is followed by a gerund, not an infinitive in current English. What about the "it is of no use"? Does it pattern in the same way?
Consider the following:
- It is no use asking John for help.
- It is no use to ask John for help.
- It is of no use asking John for help.
- It is of no use to ask John for help.
In this connection, note the following 19th-century English:
"To think that because those who wield power in society wield in the end that of government, therefore it is of no use to attempt to influence the constitution of the government by acting on opinion, is to forget that opinion is itself one of the greatest active social forces. "
(John Stuart Mill, Considerations On Representative Government)
Would this be considered awkward in current English?