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what is the difference between the two sentences?

I have always been

or

I always have been

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1 Answer 1

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There is no difference. They are both saying that the proposition “I have been able...” is true for all times T where T is at or before the present moment. The position of the “always” is mostly a matter of taste. In fact, while it would be rather archaic, and not particularly idiomatic, you could even get away with:

Always, I have been able...

or even:

I have been able always...

although the latter risks some ambiguity as to what the “always” pertains to. If I had occasion to use that form, I might throw in a comma for good measure:

I have been able, always, ...

Actually, go wild - you could even try:

I have been able ... always.

For example:

I have been able to roll my tongue for ages, since before I could walk even, in fact always, now I come to think about it, although I doubt back then I’d have known I was doing it.

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