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Example sentence:

Mark, unlike Mary's previous exes, had suggested they only meet on weekends. “Everything in moderation," were his words.

As you can see the had/perfect past has been dropped in the second sentence. Instead of had been his words, there's were his words.

Is it okay to drop had/the past perfect if it's already been defined in the previous sentences?

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I wouldn't recommend changing tenses like that. The past perfect indicates that the narration is framed in past tense, and is now referring to something that happened in the past of the past. Lines in past tense happened at time -x while lines in past perfect had happened at time -x-y:

Mark, unlike Mary's previous exes, had suggested they only meet on weekends. “Everything in moderation," had been his words.

or: Mary even felt resentful toward Mark. Mark, unlike Mary's previous exes, had suggested they only meet on weekends. Thinking back, she remembered their first date. “Everything in moderation," had been his words.

(felt, remembered at time -x; had been, had suggested at time -x-y)

Note that in less formal usage, even native speakers may mix up these tenses. The most common alternative is to avoid past perfect altogether and say everything in past tense. It would be a bit unusual to use past perfect in one sentence and then switch to the past-only style in the very next sentence.

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