Is sentence "They tend to be being mature" correct? Am I right in thinking that "being" is not needed here?


Perhaps grammatically correct, but odd.

There is no need for a "continuous" form "be being". I can not think of a situation where this helps the meaning. Instead just say "he tends to be immature"

We would say "he is being immature" to mean "he isn't always immature, but he is behaving immaturely now". He "tends to be immature" means "he sometimes behaves immmaturely". Those two meanings can't be easily combined. I would understand "He tends to be being immature" as meaning the same as "He tends to be immature", so the extra word is no needed.

  • While you're correct in this context, where "to be" is a copula linking a subject to an adjectival predicate, there is a need for "to be being" as part of (infinitive, conditional, and similar) passive progressive verbs. Consider the phrase "I could be being massaged by my partner if I didn't have to be at work", for example. – Darael Dec 12 '18 at 15:18

You answered your own question - "being" does not need to be there.

"They tend to be being mature"

"Being" is the progressive form (present participle) of the verb "to be", so "be being" makes about as much sense as "she flies flying" (ie no sense at all).


You are right. If we omit "being", the sentence will be correct.

Use the pattern "tend + to be + adjective/participle/noun/noun phrase":

Capital markets in Africa tend to be small and largely under-capitalized.

Older persons tend to be active voters.

  • "Be being" is most certainly not impossible: it's the progressive passive. While we only rarely use that in the infinitive, it crops up with other forms of the copula ("am being [verbed]", "are being [verbed]", "was being [verbed]") often, and the infinitive falls naturally out of that on occasion. It's not appropriate here, but calling it "impossible" is overstating the case to the point of inaccuracy. – Darael Dec 12 '18 at 15:10

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