There is something I don’t understand in between present perfect simple (PPS) and present perfect continuous (PPC).

As we know,

PPC = has/have + been + ing

PPS = has/have + ed

So why we use:

I have been married for 2 years


I have been marrying for 2 years?


There is also the form "be + adjective" and the closely related "be + past participle" (the passive voice).

So the verb "to marry" has two senses

  1. Jon marries Mary.
  2. The priest marries Jon and Mary.

These both relate to an act, not a state.

If I want to talk about the state I need the adjective "married" (which comes from the past participle or marry). There are two ways of using the adjective.

  1. Jon is married to Mary
  2. Jon and Mary are married.

If I want to use this in the "until now" sense, I need to use the present perfect:

Jon has been married to Mary for 5 years.

Now, "has been marrying" is also correct grammar. Remember the priest?

The priest has been marrying couples for 5 years.

It means that the priest has been performing ceremonies for 5 years. (it could also mean one ceremony has lasted for 5 years, but that seems impossible, so I don't even consider that as a possible meaning)

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