In an semi-unrelated post, I saw where someone had said “In this case the indirect object is placed before the direct object because it is a pronoun.” in reference to the sentence “I gave him the book with the red cover while you were out of town.” He said, “Had it been a noun phrase, it would be placed after the direct object: ‘I gave the book to my dad.’”
Is this correct? I do not understand.
P.s. I didn’t take the suggested question link because this is exactly using the split phrasal verb. Therefore, I am asking something different.