Please kindly read the sentence:
‘[Some court decisions] seem best explained as based on considerations of the well-known policy of preventing the Statute being used itself as an instrument of fraud‘.
Why is “to be” left out (after “seem” and before “best explained”)?
I understand that if “seem” (as a linking verb) is followed by a noun that describes an opinion or a subjective view relating to a thing in the subject, we can omit “to be”.
Is there any similar rule for this pattern? If different, what are the rules for this?
Any reference to a grammar book is appreciated. I will explore this matter (or other) further.