I read an article of Economist, and now I have a question.
Chamberlain returned home believing that he had cast-iron assurances from Hitler not to invade Czechoslovakia, famously waving the letter Hitler had signed as he disembarked in Britain. Writing in 1938, The Economist was far more cautious. “There is nothing optimistic,” we wrote “in a forecast that sees only a breathing space before the return of crisis, whether that breathing space be six months or two years.
Above is an excerpt from the article, and I wonder why they used "Writing in 1938" instead of "Written in 1938". I mean, I think it would be much more correct gramatically when it comes to say "Written in 1938, The Economist was far more cautious."
Can you tell me the reason why they used 'writing in'?