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I heard this phrase before: "He is impenetrable to reasons.". It seems to me it means he is NOT a logical or sensible person.

However, can I say "He is penetrable to reasons.", to mean that he is a logical and sensible person?

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I think you mean "impenetrable to reason". Reason here is a non-count noun meaning "What is right, practical, or possible; common sense." If someone is impenetrable to reason then they cannot be influenced by arguments based on common sense or logic.

"Penetrable to reason" is not a common expression. To convey the opposite meaning, I would rather say "he is susceptible to reason".

  • I see, "reason" should be a non-count noun here.If it is right to say "impenetrable to reason", can I also say "penetrable to reason" to mean the opposite? – JustWonder Oct 27 '18 at 22:04

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