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I have two questions relating to the sentence I wrote in bold.

In 1990, the federal government eliminated its share of contributions to the UI program. And since then, UI has been entirely funded by contributions from workers and employers.

Question 1: This link and this too, says that adverbs such as completely/entirely should be placed between the auxiliary verb and the main verb. So I placed "entirely" in between has been and funded. But when I googled "has been entirely funded" it returned 6,200 results, compared to 23,000 for "has been funded entirely". What is the correct position for "entirely"?

Question 2: For some reason, I am having difficulty parsing "And since then, UI has been entirely funded". I feel the use of "since then" and "has been" with "funded" is not grammatical. What is the correct tense for this?

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Both placements are correct and idiomatic. The adverb entirely can be placed before or after the verb funded. There is no rule that requires adverbs always to be placed before the main verb.

Where you place the adverb is often just a matter of preference, depending on the sentence concerned. You will find examples and explanations at the sites below and at numerous other sites if you google placement of adverbs.

Regarding your second query, the tense is correct. The phrase since then (or just since) connects a point in the past to the present, a construction that is best suited by the present perfect tense.

He has lived in London since Christmas.

She has worked at the library for the past six months.

Regrettably, especially on the BBC, one often hears reporters using the past tense when the present perfect is required, in constructions such as:

The rate fell by one per cent over the past six months. (This is wrong!)

It should be:

The rate has fallen by one per cent over the past six months.

https://dictionary.cambridge.org/grammar/british-grammar/about-adjectives-and-adverbs/adverbs-and-adverb-phrases-position

https://www.thoughtco.com/adverb-placement-in-english-1211117

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since then ... has been...

is fine. The concept "from that past point in time until now" is not incompatible with the present perfect.

The placement of entirely is a stylistic choice. Some writers would consider interrupting the verb has been funded as something to avoid.

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