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I'm wondering if a verb exists without a negative form. I mean if it does not have it at all or the negative form of it is somehow meaningless.

for example: "I killed him" and "I didn't kill him" are negatives.

closed as unclear what you're asking by shin, Michael Harvey, FumbleFingers, Eddie Kal, Andrew Nov 14 '18 at 17:30

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  • something like "kill" => "unkill"? – holydragon Nov 13 '18 at 10:39
  • @holydragon No, I mean: "I killed him" and "I didn't kill him", they are negatives. – Peyman mohseni kiasari Nov 13 '18 at 11:03
  • Such a verb would be effectively meaningless, wouldn't it? What does it mean to do X if you can't not do X? – Maciej Stachowski Nov 13 '18 at 12:36
  • Why do you say "I killed him" is negative? Killing someone isn't negative in a grammatical sense. It might not even be negative in reality - for example if they were saving them from intractable pain (euthanasia). – chasly from UK Nov 13 '18 at 13:31
  • "To be or not to be, that is the question" Are there really an verbs that are like this in your own native language? – Andrew Nov 13 '18 at 14:40
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A verb, by definition, is an action. You always have the option to not do any action. So no, there is no verb that cannot be used in the negative.

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