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Why do we use "have" with singulars, I mean we have read the formula that we use "has" with singulars and "have" with plurals, but in some sentences I read "have" with singulars. For example,

  1. Does she have a car?
  2. She does not have a van?

Why we are using "have" here?

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    That does takes over and acts as a singular verb instead of have.
    – Michael Rybkin
    Nov 23, 2018 at 4:41
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because this is basic grammar. The verb is conjugated according to the subject, not whether the subject is singular or plural. I have a van, you have a van, she has a van, they have a van, and so on. With questions, you conjugate the helping verb "do", and leave the main verb in the infinitive form. Do I have a van?, does she have a van? and so on. An English textbook should help you understand this.
    – Andrew
    Nov 23, 2018 at 7:13
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    @Andrew We shouldn't close a question just because it asks basic grammar. The OP is genuinely confused and ELL folks are supposed to help them. This is not ELU or Linguistics.SE.
    – Mohd Zulkanien Sarbini
    Nov 23, 2018 at 11:07
  • @user178049 we are not a substitute for an English primer or a basic ESL course. Verb conjugation is first-year stuff -- if OP doesn't even understand this, then there's more going on than a simple answer can help ameliorate.
    – Andrew
    Nov 23, 2018 at 11:11

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The auxiliary verb "do"/"does"/"did" must be followed by the plain form of verb.

i. She has a car.

ii. Does she have a car?

ii She doesn't have a car.

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