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Why do we use "have" with singulars, I mean we have read the formula that we use "has" with singulars and "have" with plurals, but in some sentences I read "have" with singulars. For example,

  1. Does she have a car?
  2. She does not have a van?

Why we are using "have" here?

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    That does takes over and acts as a singular verb instead of have. Commented Nov 23, 2018 at 4:41
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    I'm voting to close this question as off-topic because this is basic grammar. The verb is conjugated according to the subject, not whether the subject is singular or plural. I have a van, you have a van, she has a van, they have a van, and so on. With questions, you conjugate the helping verb "do", and leave the main verb in the infinitive form. Do I have a van?, does she have a van? and so on. An English textbook should help you understand this.
    – Andrew
    Commented Nov 23, 2018 at 7:13
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    @Andrew We shouldn't close a question just because it asks basic grammar. The OP is genuinely confused and ELL folks are supposed to help them. This is not ELU or Linguistics.SE. Commented Nov 23, 2018 at 11:07
  • @user178049 we are not a substitute for an English primer or a basic ESL course. Verb conjugation is first-year stuff -- if OP doesn't even understand this, then there's more going on than a simple answer can help ameliorate.
    – Andrew
    Commented Nov 23, 2018 at 11:11

1 Answer 1

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The auxiliary verb "do"/"does"/"did" must be followed by the plain form of verb.

i. She has a car.

ii. Does she have a car?

ii She doesn't have a car.

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