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I have been reading a text from the sun newspaper, where a man is asking for advice from an expert about his girlfriend who left him. Here is the link of the text: https://www.thesun.co.uk/dear-deidre/7796623/girl-saying-unhappy-gone-want-back/

While reading, I saw that the use of "since", which we were taught at school, seems to have be used with no time reference point. The word "since" is in the middle of sentence and there is no a time point in the past, e.g since 1990, since last year, since 10:00 am, etc. So, I am confused.

Here is the sentence:

"...She hardly replies to texts or calls and I get frustrated. She has since said to leave her alone, and not to contact her until she contacts me..."

So, how can we understand what time point in the past, the "since" refers to? And can we use "since" like that without a point of time in the past? Would it not be better omitting the "since" in the sentence?

Thanks

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  • "She has since said" has to be in the past. Otherwise you couldn't talk about it now.
    – user3169
    Nov 28 '18 at 2:37
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The time reference is simply further back in the passage. There's some ambiguity around which point is referenced, as there are a few options. Most likely it's when "She accepted".

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