While continuing on my quest to learn tenses....
How is the meaning of 1 and 2 different ? Don't they both mean the same thing ?
I will have studied for two hours by the time she calls me tonight. (FP)
I will have been studying for two hours by the time she calls me tonight. (FPP)
By definition (paraphrasing),
FP represents a timeline where "first future action" finishes before the "second future action".
and
FPP represents a timeline where "first future action" continues until the "second future action".
However, in the above phrases, they both seem to imply that the "first future action (study for two hours)" will continue after the "second future action (she call me tonight)". Don't they ?
Thanks