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Sentence

After the end of the week,nothing seems to have happened.

This part "seems to have happened".I don't understand logic behind linkage between words to,have and happened.can some help me understand grammar logic behind it.

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"to have happened" is a perfect infinitive and is used to refer to the past. Notice that "seems" is in the present, to express that the perception is current. What belongs to the past is the fact that nothing happened.

  • Nothing seems to have happened = It appears (now) that nothing happened (in the past).

  • Nothing seemed to have happened = It appeared (then) that nothing had happened (at some previous time).

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