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Extracted this from Times Magazine,and I am confused by the use of " about 40 percent of whom". Just couldn't seem to get this use of language.Would anyone explain to me this? And sometimes I read " of which", I often end up facing the same confusion.

Original text as below:

As a philanthropist.Bacall has raised more than $10 million for his non-profit,which supports refugees,and as the CEO of Elite Hospitality Group,a development and management company,he employs more than 1000 people,about 40 percent of whom he estimates are foreign-born.

Thank you for helping me.

  • Why is this question not "he estimates are " - 2 verbs. – Zhang Jan 29 at 6:47
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    It'd great if you could explain what exactly you don't understand about this usage. – Michael Rybkin Jan 29 at 7:10
  • Is it that you don't understand what of whom or of which means? – Jason Bassford Supports Monica Jan 29 at 13:47
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Your example is like this:

He has five dogs, three of which, he says, know how to sing.

It is not like this:

He has five dogs.(full stop) Three of them, he says, know how to sing.

Note the differences.

When there is no full stop after dogs, the subsequent clauses belong to the same sentence and therefore a relative pronoun, namely which, is used to refer back to the five dogs.

Where there is a full stop after dogs, the subsequent clauses belong to a new sentence, and therefore a normal pronoun, namely them, is used to refer back to the five dogs.

NOTE: The punctuation does not cause these syntactic relationships; it merely reflects them.

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