It feels amazing to read this book after waiting for so long.

It feels amazing to read this book after have waited for so long.

So, which one is correct? Are both correct? And if, are they interchangeable or is there a difference when it comes to the meaning?


  • First is OK, second is wrong (incorrect use of verb 'have'). – Michael Harvey Feb 9 '19 at 12:01

If you correct "after have" to "after having"*, both are grammatical.

I don't find a difference in meaning. I think most people would say "after waiting", as complex non-finite forms involving "have" tend to be avoided unless they are really needed.

*"After" can either be a conjunction, requiring a full finite clause with a subject (eg "After I had waited") or it can be a preposition, requiring a noun phrase, including the special case of an '-ing' clause (eg "after waiting" or "after having waited").

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.