What is the difference:

1) How many people will be there?

2) How many people will there be there?


1 Answer 1


There is no difference in meaning. The first is more concise and easier to construe. It is what a skilled writer would publish and what a careful speaker would usually say. But people do not always formulate spoken (or even written) sentences with skill and care.

  • The second one is correct without the last word "there", right? Feb 16, 2019 at 7:31
  • 1) But if the first one is easier why is it used by a skilled person? If a person is skilled he has to use more difficult constructions. 2) No, it's with the second 'there" Feb 16, 2019 at 8:00
  • 1
    @TasneemZh Yes, it would be correct, but it would have a slightly different meaning in that it would simply be a question about number rather than a question about number in a specific place ot at specific event. Feb 16, 2019 at 12:25
  • @MichaelAzarenko With some important exceptions, skilled writers generally use the clearest expression, which means the expression easiest to understand. The usual purpose of writing is to explain or to persuade rather than to baffle. 99 times out of a 100, use "redden" rather than "incarnadine:" most people are too lazy to use a dictionary. And if your purpose is to deceive or confuse, you certainly do not want to force your audience to pause for thought. Feb 16, 2019 at 12:47
  • @JeffMorrow but they are different - "redden" and "incarnadine", I translated. The first one is to make read but the latter one is to make slightly red. It's different=) But then why do we say: 1) "How many people will there be"? instead of 2) "How many people will be there?" Or it can be worse: 3) "How many people will at school be ?" instead of "How many people will be at school? Feb 16, 2019 at 15:08

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